Can I just check that I have understood the OP's journey correctly? They seem to be saying that
- they got on a train at A
- when that train got to B it was over 30 minutes late
- they remained on that train to C
- when that train arrived at C, it was ' within delay repay time' (i.e. on most versions of Delay Repay no more than 15 minutes late) of the scheduled A-C journey
If this is what is meant, I agree with the majority view that there is no (legitimate) claim to Delay Repay. But this seems fairly remarkable performance by the train - to have recovered 15 minutes or so once it was running 30 minutes late.
Or have I misunderstood the journey? Was it
<as above>
- they got on a train at A
- when that train got to B it was over 30 minutes late
- they remained on that train to C
</end as above>
- when that train arrived at C, it was ' within delay repay time' (i.e. on most versions of Delay Repay no more than 15 minutes late) of a scheduled journey leaving B at the time the train actually left B
To try and explain my last point: timetable says train actually used should leave B at 1400 and arrive at C at 1500, and there is a later train scheduled to leave B at 1430 and arrive C at 1530. In the event, the train actually used leaves B at 1431 (31 minutes late) and arrives at C at 1544 (less than the Delay Repay threshold for the train scheduled to leave B at 1430, but 45 minutes late for passengers starting from A)
What I'm trying to say is that the fact that the journey is from A to C, regardless of how many tickets were used, cuts both ways. How late was the OP at C against the arrival time they expected when they started at A - not against when they changed their mind about where to go somewhere between A and B?