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Strict liability offences

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DaveNewcastle

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As long as the offence is strict liability, and the prosecution can prove that the actus reus has been committed, then the case will succeed.
As you will realise from my post above, I am unable to agree with this opinion, based on experience. Perhaps, though, counsel for the Claimants in cases where this has failed had been as confident as you on submitting their Claim!

Do you think Ferret and I have been making all this up about SL offences?
This is not about what I think about members of this forum and I won't be drawn.

. . I seem to recall you managed to get them thrown out on a point of law? I guess for the sake of balance, we should say that this is 3 cases out of many many hundreds we're talking about here?
I'm ashamed that my modesty fails me here, but I believe that my sucess rate was 3 out of 3.

However, I hope the real point I was hoping to introduce to this debate about the application of the law in practice was apparent from my previous post (9 posts up).
 
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ralphchadkirk

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This is not about what I think about members of this forum and I won't be drawn.
I wasn't asking you about anything personal about any members of this forum. I asked you about whether you thought we were making everything we were saying about SL offences up.
 

Greenback

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I think it might be fair to say that TOC's generally do not prosecute but reserve the right to do so in the right circumstances?
 

Ferret

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As you will realise from my post above, I am unable to agree with this opinion, based on experience. Perhaps, though, counsel for the Claimants in cases where this has failed had been as confident as you on submitting their Claim!

This is not about what I think about members of this forum and I won't be drawn.


I'm ashamed that my modesty fails me here, but I believe that my sucess rate was 3 out of 3.

However, I hope the real point I was hoping to introduce to this debate about the application of the law in practice was apparent from my previous post (9 posts up).

My point was that you've managed 3 wins with SL offences, but how many hundreds and hundreds of cases have been lost - and I didn't just mean by you! The point I'm trying to make (badly!) is that for the odd case that you manage to get thrown out on a point of law, there are hundreds that proceed roughly as Ralph describes - with a guilty verdict. What's great about your post is that you've highlighted that it is possible to defend a case involving an SL offence - and this is why I'll always advise anyone asking a question on here to seek proper professional legal advice.
--- old post above --- --- new post below ---
I think it might be fair to say that TOC's generally do not prosecute but reserve the right to do so in the right circumstances?

Ah, I'm glad you understand things Greenback!
 

sheff1

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I am not sure about the poster. This is something that would have to be challenged in court. As far as I see it, the byelaw expceptions ask for a authorised person. Not a poster, or other literature. As I said though, this would have to be challenged.

Are you really saying the question as to whether a 'poster' is a 'notice' (as stated in the byelaws) needs to be challenged in court ?
 

ralphchadkirk

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Are you really saying the question as to whether a 'poster' is a 'notice' (as stated in the byelaws) needs to be challenged in court ?

Yes, because the Byelaws state an authorised person, and does not define a person as a poster. For a legally binding outcome, it has to be tested in court - creating case law.
 

sheff1

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Yes, because the Byelaws state an authorised person, and does not define a person as a poster. For a legally binding outcome, it has to be tested in court - creating case law.

But you said that the Byelaws stated:

No person shall be in breach of the Byelaw 18(1) or 18(2) if
(ii) there was a notice at the station where he began his journey permitting journeys to be started without a valid ticket


To any reasonable person a poster inviting them to buy a ticket from the conductror is a notice giving them permission to start their journey without a ticket
 

ralphchadkirk

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But you said that the Byelaws stated:

No person shall be in breach of the Byelaw 18(1) or 18(2) if
(ii) there was a notice at the station where he began his journey permitting journeys to be started without a valid ticket

Ah yes, you are correct. Therefore a poster does count as a notice - no need to test that in court! :oops:
 

DaveNewcastle

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I am quite happy to get a solicitor to check up what I have written, and I am 100% confident that they will agree with me - considering they taught me Strict Liability..
I'm sure that agreement would be of some reassurance.
I wonder, though, while you're having that discussion, you could ask another question which might be of comfort to posters on here?
Perhaps something along these lines : "In view of the relative simplicity of prosecuting a 'Strict Liability' offence instead of choosing to prosecute a more readily contested Civil Liability[and you could illustrate this with some railway ticketing examples from other threads on here], what are the factors one would take into account when chosing which of these two Offences to prosecute?, and, what are the particular hazards which can arise when prosecuting a 'SL' on which it may fail?, and, what differences to the sentencing options would that choice provide?" [you could probably think of other distinctions which some have been interested in, such as the potential for a Criminal Record and the routes to Appeal].

I guess you have a different perspective and interest in this debate but even if its of little help to you, perhaps some of the others on here would be interested in a reply to such an enquiry. Thanks.
I wasn't asking you about anything personal about any members of this forum. I asked you about whether you thought we were making everything we were saying about SL offences up.
It is of no interest to me whether posters on here 'make things up' or not (and what people do can often come as a surprise to me). I doubt if those following the detailled points being explored in this thread are going to be helped by learning whether I think you do such surprising things.
I hope you don't mind if I refrain from answering such questions.
 

ralphchadkirk

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I'm sure that agreement would be of some reassurance.
I wonder, though, while you're having that discussion, you could ask another question which might be of comfort to posters on here?
Perhaps something along these lines : "In view of the relative simplicity of prosecuting a 'Strict Liability' offence instead of choosing to prosecute a more readily contested Civil Liability[and you could illustrate this with some railway ticketing examples from other threads on here], what are the factors one would take into account when chosing which of these two Offences to prosecute?, and, what are the particular hazards which can arise when prosecuting a 'SL' on which it may fail?, and, what differences to the sentencing options would that choice provide?" [you could probably think of other distinctions which some have been interested in, such as the potential for a Criminal Record and the routes to Appeal].
I will ask.
I've checked my textbook chapter on Strict Liability as well, and it also agrees with what I have put.
I would be interested to know how you won your SL cases?
 

Clip

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True to some extent, a better comparison would be if you ate your purchases before you got to the checkout !!


Actually i do this quite often.. especially with a fresh baguette. I keep the wrapper and hand it to the checkout girl and had no problems.
:D
 

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I haven't read all of the posts but if I may throw my sixpence worth in for what its worth, based upon my experience in passenger-facing roles.

I would be extremely surprised if any TOC went straight for an S5 Prosecution simply because a person did not have a ticket, as there may well be many and sometimes valid reasons why a person is found on a train without a ticket. Under the Act a person is given the opportunity to pay the fare or provide their name and address as the purpose of the Act is to deter travelling without a ticket but also to provide a remedy to those who deliberately attempt to avoid payment.

If a person is not intending to defraud then it would be an unreasonable use of the Act, and I believe that the Magistrates would throw the case out.

Where however if a TTI/ RPI or whatever these chaps are called these days can demonstrate by the behaviour of the person that there was a deliberate attempt to avoid the fare, then in those circumstances they can certainly proceed for a Prosecution under S5 (3). Prima facie evidence of this for example would be hiding, giving false details, etc.

Immediately the TTI has strong grounds to support this then a S5 is available. Under BR we did not go to a S5 unless we really did have strong grounds. Where there was doubt a person would be written to and a record kept. A subsequent offence of the same nature would then find that the original would be used as evidence to support a deliberate attempt to avoid payment.
 

Flamingo

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Actually i do this quite often.. especially with a fresh baguette. I keep the wrapper and hand it to the checkout girl and had no problems.
:D
But if you tried to leave the store without paying for it, as you didn't like it...
 

Mojo

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I haven't read all of the posts but if I may throw my sixpence worth in for what its worth, based upon my experience in passenger-facing roles.

<snip>
Old Timer - you may be able to help here!

I presume you are talking about s5 of the Regulation of Railways Act 1889, which is not a strict liability offence (ie. intent/mens rea must be proved). Is this the only way which a simple prosecution for not having a ticket (as opposed to fraud, etc. cases) was brought about, or did prosecutions ever take place under the railway byelaws?
 

Old Timer

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Actually i do this quite often.. especially with a fresh baguette. I keep the wrapper and hand it to the checkout girl and had no problems.
:D
Actually strictly under law you have committed an act of theft. The price shown is what is known as an "invitation to treat" in Law.

You can either offer the price asked for or offer a lower price. It is up to the seller to decide whether or not to sell the item to you. That is one reason why you can get discounts against priced goods in a shop. It is also the reason why you cannot demand an item to be sold to you at an incorrect price.

Until the seller accepts your offer the item remains his. By eating it, you have thus technically committed theft.

Now note I use the words "strictly" and "Technically". A shop COULD argue that you had no intention to purchase the item, and we see that every day with some people who let their kids open packets of sweets and drink juices, and then discard the wrappings.

I make the point with no intention of getting into a long-winded debate, just simply to make an observation




Old Timer - you may be able to help here!

I presume you are talking about s5 of the Regulation of Railways Act 1889, which is not a strict liability offence (ie. intent/mens rea must be proved). Is this the only way which a simple prosecution for not having a ticket (as opposed to fraud, etc. cases) was brought about, or did prosecutions ever take place under the railway byelaws?
Oh dear you may credit me with greater capability than I have ! :oops:

MY experience was that we NEVER Prosecuted under Byelaws for ticketing offences.

The Railway Byelaws were primarily used for regulating behaviour with regards to tickets and allowing us to issue excess fares, etc, etc.

For example the current Byelaw 17 is specifically excluded from the penalties. It has to be Prosecuted under the 1889 Act S5

A prosecution under the 1889 Act Section 5 (3) is reserved for cases where there has been a DELIBERATE attempt to avoid payment of the fare, and is the legal sanction.

I personally have never known it be used where someone was detected without a ticket in the normal course of events. As I said there are many and varied reasons why someone is without a ticket. You could have dropped it, had it stolen, genuinely forgotten it, etc.

The important point here is that it is the ACTIONS of the person at that point which are critical to a TTI reaching a view that there was a deliberate attempt to avoid the fare.

If a person goes to the TTI and explains the situation, there is no breach of S5. It could be argued however that if that someone had been offered the opportunity to rectify their situation for example by a Guard coming around and asking for fares, that the act of then not buying a replacement ticket is prima facie evidence of fare evasion, and I have known that Prosecution succeed when a TTI has subsequently boarded a train.

Does this help any ?
 
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DaveNewcastle

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My point was that you've managed 3 wins with SL offences, but how many hundreds and hundreds of cases have been lost - and I didn't just mean by you! The point I'm trying to make (badly!) is that for the odd case that you manage to get thrown out on a point of law, there are hundreds that proceed roughly as Ralph describes - with a guilty verdict.
Oh no, you had made your point quite clearly!
It is my error in moving on to make a subsequent point as if it was a response. Sorry!

My subsequent point was that it is possible to have (as Ralph C has put it) '100% certainty' in an SL matter, where the certainty appears to be that the Claimant's has failed! I wouldn't have pursued the cases if I wasn't that confident.

I would be interested to know how you won your SL cases?
I've hesitated before replying, and none of these were Offences 'on the Railways' but as I think the general principle may be helpful, I will expand a little.

1. Road Vehicle not displaying a 'Tax Disc'. A 'Strict Liability' Offence under S.62 of the Vehicle Excise Licence and Registration Act 1994.
There were two routes open to me: (i) The Prosecution had made a clerical error in the Summons which would have been enough to abandon the Hearing. However, they might correct the error and try again, so I kept quiet about that and saved it for an Appeal, which would clearly have suceeded. (ii) The defendant did not have any opportunity to Tax the vehicle in the brief time between purchasing it and being given the 'Notice' (unlike Railway ticket regs, there is nothing in the VEL Act which equates to 'having an opportunity to buy'). I argued that the Defendant cannot be guilty of failing to do the impossible. And won.

2. Company not submitting an End of Year Return for employees under PAYE. Taxes Management Act S.93
The Civil Servant concerned noticed that the Company Appeared to be in contravention of the requirements of the Act and issued a Penalty and claimed it vigourously to the point of levying Distraint. (ie instructing a firm of Bailiffs.). The Defendant paid up at that point. I argued that the S.93 should not have be applied because of a minor technicality, and that the Penalty had been paid under Duress (ie the payment was not an admission of guilt). And won. The Penalty was refunded.

3. Speeding motor vehicle detected by speed camera.
The Defendant had already paid a Fixed Penalty for the offence but the CPS had photographic evidence of her passing the same camera twice within the same minute (which she actually had done - by driving fast & making a "U" turn to pass the same camera over the speed limit again about 50 seconds later - her vehicle was over the speed limit on both occassions!) and the CPS wanted to prosecute for the Offence as the Fixed Penalty had not been paid within the time available. I spent a long time haranguing the CPS Officer about the comedy I was preparing for the Court if they wanted to prosecute for the same offence being committed twice within the same minute of time, to the extent of spreading the story around some Court staff such that it became a bit of a story. After a few curt faxes from me (and probably some jibes in the brifing rooms), he relented and withdrew the Hearing.

4. (Still to be determined) Taxes Management Act (again). I won't say much at present but it appears that the Defendant is accused (its a SL Offence with wording similar to "and he fails to") of something which the HMRC have not made it possible for the Defendant to do. I'm confident enough to go to Appeal if they succeed, but then it wouldn't be cost effective to do so.

Of course the relevant lawmakers in Westminster could improve the Acts to remove some of these weaknesses in legislation and in practice.
For your information (and amusement?), I did, in conjunction with some professional and personal partners, take an Alcohol Licensing case to the Magistrates, to Judicial Review, to Appeal, to another Judicial Review and ultimately to the House of Lords. We won! But by the time we'd actually got there, the lawmakers really HAD changed the Law, so regrettably, no one else was going to benefit from our, er, clarification of the law!

Hope this helps.
 
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yorkie

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MY experience was that we NEVER Prosecuted under Byelaws for ticketing offences.
Now that is interesting as I am under the impression that is still the case. I would be interested to know whether TOCs have changed practice in recent years. I am not accusing people like Ferret or Ralph of lying, but I believe (and certainly hope) they may be misinformed. However it may be that they are correct and that there has been a recent change. If so, I find this worrying and I'd like more information, including reasoning behind the change.

I've not had time to fully digest your most informative posts. I know things aren't the same now as they were when you worked in revenue, but the background is both interesting and gives us a good understanding of the issues. Thanks for posting!
 

Ferret

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Yorkie, I very much doubt I'm misinformed!;) Now, I've a vague recollection of a case you highlighted recently which you described as a stunning defeat for the TOC concerned (a London area TOC), but in reality the guy did still end up being fined - and I'm sure somebody came back to you and said something along the lines of 'hardly a stunning victory when he was still done for the strict liability offence'. Alas I'm posting via Blackberry atm, so can't find the posts concerned!

I'm also curious as to why you find the enforcement of byelaws worrying? Why shouldn't the laws of the land be enforced, when the circumstances are right?
 

Mojo

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I'm also curious as to why you find the enforcement of byelaws worrying? Why shouldn't the laws of the land be enforced, when the circumstances are right?
I always said that I have never heard of ticketing infringements being prosected under the byelaws, and indeed looking back to the introduction of Penalty Fares all those years ago, all sources seem to say that the reason for Penalty Fares is because intent must be proved, and a prosecution must be brought under the 1889 Act.

I know Revenue Inspectors (at least at my company) don't actually bring about prosecutions, they submit a report to the company who then decides what action to take, but I know they are often called upon to go to Magistrates court to either give evidence or sit in on the proceedings to get an idea of what goes on. Given we have quite a few Inspectors on this forum, can any of them say that they have actually given evidence or otherwise gone to a fare evasion case for infringement of the byelaws? As it seems from Old Timer's experience, and also what many (including our lawmakers - see Hansard for Penalty Fares debates) used to consider, that the byelaws are not used for no ticket; so if it is, then it's probably a new innovation.
 

Old Timer

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For the sake of clarity.

My previous posts concerned DELIBERATE fare evasion.

People can still be Prosecuted under the Railway Byelaws for issues such as altering/defacing tickets, passing tickets onto another, etc, etc. In this case although they may not be Prosecuted under S5 of the 1889 Act, or the Theft Act, they are still in breach of a byelaw.

For a definitive view of the update situation and practice I would however defer to one of the revenue trained Guards or TTIs (or whatever they are called now!) who are on here and deal with this day in, day out.
 

Mojo

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http://www.dft.gov.uk/pgr/rail/legislation/pf/penaltyfarespolicya?page=2

Before penalty fares were introduced, the only way to deter people from travelling without a ticket was to prosecute them under the Regulation of Railways Act 1889. This was time-consuming, costly and often ineffective. For a prosecution to be successful, it had to be proved that the passenger intended to avoid paying.

When were the railway byelaws first introduced; was it before or after penalty fares (1 April 1994)? In which case the above statement is correct, but no longer applies, as in those days it was the only way but the railway also has another option (byelaws) now. If byelaws existed before then, maybe something happened which meant that fare evasion byelaw infringement could not be brought through the court or there was an agreement that the railway would simply not prosecute under this for the risk of it being unfair? Or maybe Parliament and the DfT (or whoever it was at the time) were both mislead?!

Are any Revenue Inspectors here able to post the state of affairs at their company? I have just heard from one who says at _his_ company they only bring forward prosecutions where intent can be proven (ie. s5).
 

DaveNewcastle

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When were the railway byelaws first introduced; was it before or after penalty fares (1 April 1994)?
The Railway ByeLaws date back to, at least as early as the 1962 Transport Act and very probably earlier.

Are any Revenue Inspectors here able to post the state of affairs at their company? I have just heard from one who says at _his_ company they only bring forward prosecutions where intent can be proven (ie. s5).
Without prejudice to any replies by professionals working for any company, the attached document may be of interest. Its the
2009 training course notes from Operational Learning for their "Revenue Control Inspector" training course.
View attachment Trainer notes Day 5 Conditions of carriage Byelaws RRA1889 redacted.pdf
This includes their interpretation of much of the 1889 Regulation of Railways Act, other legislation and the principles to be applied in practice. Enjoy studying it!
 

yorkie

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I'm also curious as to why you find the enforcement of byelaws worrying? Why shouldn't the laws of the land be enforced, when the circumstances are right?
I find it very worrying that we are told (by Ralph) that someone who boards a train at Rotherham (as in the original example) and be asked if they have a ticket, and when they say no, they can have their details recorded for prosecution. You and Ralph both agree that in practice this doesn't happen. But you both seem to be indicating to us that this could happen, legally. I find that extremely concerning. In my opinion intent should be proven, and I am under the impression that is the case, and the 1889 act should be used instead.

People are asking on this forum for advice and, on some occasions, they are being told they (or their friend/daughter etc) have committed a strict liability offence and that if & when it goes to court, intent doesn't have to be proven. This is obviously extremely worrying for people who come here for advice, and gives them the (false) impression that they have no defence. In reality, in the most recent case, this was demonstrated NOT to be the case, when EMT stated that if the original ticket could be produced they would drop the case. Yet the original poster had been informed by people here that finding the original ticket would not be a valid defence as it was 'strict liability'.

If people are going to be told here that their case will be dealt with on a 'strict liability' basis I want proof that cases are being brought about on that basis. All the evidence I have seen suggests that they are not.
 

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Attached is the full, unredacted version of the document posted by DaveNewcastle above. I had looked at this document before but did not consider it relevant as I didn't think it answered our questions, but is interesting nonetheless.
 

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FGWman

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Just to add to the debate. Intent does not need to be proven in respect to ticketing. For example

A few years ago there was a barrier block at Didcot Parkway. For those of you who who dont know the station there is a large car park about 100 yards away from the station. On this particular night revenue staff were positioned at the car park. About 15 people were found going to the car park without tickets and all were prosecuted. The gist of the case was as they had travelled on the train and then left the station without paying they were guilty of fare evasion. There was a ticket office open on the station and none of them had been to the ticket office to buy a ticket on arrival

Intenet did not need to be proven. It was enough that there was a ticket office where they could have bought a ticket but did not do so. This is what is meant in that intent is not relevant. There was a place to buy tickets, they did not buy tickets, so they were guilty.

Just to add one wealthy individual decided to appeal against his conviction. After a short hearing from the Judge - whose first words on looking at the case were "What are we here for" lost and found himself liable for several thousand of pounds of appeal costs.
 

yorkie

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Can we see details of that case, FGWman? How can we be sure that the prosecution wasn't made under the 1889 act?

What you describe is no different to what happened in the Rotherham-Sheffield situation, except without any details. In the Rotherham-Sheffield situation, the OP was told that if the original ticket could be produced, then the case would be dropped.

Are you saying that if one of the Didcot people had later produced a ticket that this evidence would be ignored as it was undertaken on a 'strict liability' basis?
 

Ferret

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I find it very worrying that we are told (by Ralph) that someone who boards a train at Rotherham (as in the original example) and be asked if they have a ticket, and when they say no, they can have their details recorded for prosecution. You and Ralph both agree that in practice this doesn't happen. But you both seem to be indicating to us that this could happen, legally. I find that extremely concerning. In my opinion intent should be proven, and I am under the impression that is the case, and the 1889 act should be used instead.

People are asking on this forum for advice and, on some occasions, they are being told they (or their friend/daughter etc) have committed a strict liability offence and that if & when it goes to court, intent doesn't have to be proven. This is obviously extremely worrying for people who come here for advice, and gives them the (false) impression that they have no defence. In reality, in the most recent case, this was demonstrated NOT to be the case, when EMT stated that if the original ticket could be produced they would drop the case. Yet the original poster had been informed by people here that finding the original ticket would not be a valid defence as it was 'strict liability'.

If people are going to be told here that their case will be dealt with on a 'strict liability' basis I want proof that cases are being brought about on that basis. All the evidence I have seen suggests that they are not.

Well, we're not in a position to say how anybody's case will be dealt with on here so I wouldn't worry. That decision falls to the individual Prosecutors... However, if somebody comes on here and tells us that they've been charged under the byelaws then we are indeed in a position to say that it's an SL matter, and as such they need to chat to a lawyer ASAP. Much like we do now I guess!

As for your comments about you not seeing any evidence that the byelaws are used - I find that somewhat surprising, given that I've told you that a couple of cases involving myself are going forward as SL matters, and you've previously referred to an SL case yourself on this very board! I get the feeling you're sticking your fingers and going 'lalalalala' on this one. Well, that's up to you I guess!

 

ralphchadkirk

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But you both seem to be indicating to us that this could happen, legally. I find that extremely concerning.

It could happen. A TOC could charge someone with a byelaw offence, and the byelaw offence (17 & 18) are strict liability. Yes, I don't like SL offences in situations like these, but this is what could happens. What act a Prosecutor chooses to use in the case is up to them, as Ferret said.
 

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A few years ago there was a barrier block at Didcot Parkway. For those of you who who dont know the station there is a large car park about 100 yards away from the station. On this particular night revenue staff were positioned at the car park. About 15 people were found going to the car park without tickets and all were prosecuted. The gist of the case was as they had travelled on the train and then left the station without paying they were guilty of fare evasion.

Simple question; how could they prove that those they were prosecuting had travelled on a train if they were in a car park 100yds away?
 

Ferret

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Just as a bit of further background info for everyone, I've dug out the copy of the byelaws from the bottom of my kitbag! It says that the byelaws were...


'Made under Section 219 of the Transport Act 2000 by the Strategic Rail Authority and confirmed under Schedule 20 of the Transport Act 2000 by the Secretary of State for Transport on 22nd June 2005 for regulating the use and working of, and travel on or by means of, railway assets, the maintenance of order on railway assets and the conduct of all persons while on railway assets ('the byelaws')'

Later on, it says 'the Byelaws came into operation on 7 July 2005'.
 
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