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I was wondering if I have a leg to stand on with prior examples if possible. I could email and they reject again even if there's precedent. Googling didn't bring up any real answers nor does looking at T&Cs I've found so I would like some solid base to argue from.
With excess fares added to an advance is it only the original advance that's liable for delay repay? Or just the excess? or both together given that was the total paid? Someone must have experienced it.
I don't think there is any guidance on that I can remember. I really don't see why the combined value isn't payable as an excess fare just converts one fare to another.
Depends on the value involved but no reason why it cannot be taken to the Ombudsman if your follow-up complaint is rejected.
Yep. I had an advance but then needed a later train so paid the excess (a large amount). When I went to take the later train it was cancelled. I did send both original and excess tickets in my claim. They've only paid the far smaller advance fare. I have emailed in and lets see what happens.
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