Could someone clarify please...

[ItchyRsole]

Passenger has a freedom pass & a senior rail card and is wanting to travel from
Elstree & Borehamwood to Bedford day return.

The fair from Elstree with both railcards is £11.50. This lady insisted on being sold a ticket FROM Bedford to Elstree which on the weekend is £7.90.

One revenue guy said 'just give it to her' & the other said 'no she is starting her journey in Elstree therefore it needs to be FROM Elstree otherwise what is the point in having OUT & RTN printed on the tickets not to mention loss of revenue'

I know the general rule is to sell the cheapest ticket but surely not by doing it the way the passenger demanded?

Anyone know whose right & wrong?

 

[north]

It's not OK to use a return the wrong way around because

17. Using a return ticket
A return ticket (including a two-part return ticket) is only valid for the outward journey
shown on that ticket if the ticket is completely unused. You may not use the outward part
of a return ticket after you have used the return part.

So if you wanted a single to trip to Bedford then it's OK (just using the return portion of a ticket) The problem here is that the outward is being used after the return and this is expressly disallowed.

So it would be correct to not sell the ticket.
--- old post above --- --- new post below ---
I should add (before anyone mentions the Rail Settlement Plan) the strictly you should be able to buy any rail ticket you like (including a return from Bedford to Elstree at Elstree) but to use it would be invalid.

 

[OwlMan]

It is not valid - the outward portion must be used for a return. Rail Fares can be asymetrical (fares from A to B are different than fares from bto A).
An RPI can ask for the unused return portion of a return when a customer using the outward portion.

 

[ItchyRsole]

Thanks guys. Appreciated.

 

[revenueadvice]

I'm assuming she had arrived at Bedford with a freedom pass and was being sold the extension?

She probably knows there is a super off peak fare available from Bedford at weekends and that is why she didn't purchase the extension before travelling and if she can convince revenue staff to sell here that she saves a few pounds. If she knows that much about the fares and it is the case that she arrived at Bedford without a valid ticket I would probably have charged a penalty fare. Just my humble opinion.
--- old post above --- --- new post below ---
Just re read original it says "wanting to travel" so she would have been at Elstree. I'm very cynical!

 

[hairyhandedfool]

.....I know the general rule is to sell the cheapest ticket but surely not by doing it the way the passenger demanded?....

The cheapest available through ticket which is valid for the journey being made.

Some staff will do whatever is easiest at the time, so if they are getting hassle for charging more, they might charge less and say "I'll just do it this once" or something, which then makes it harder for the next person to enforce.

 

[yorkie]

Is it correct to not sell the ticket? If the passenger stated they wanted to travel from Elstree to Bedford, then back to Elstree, then yes it is correct to refuse to sell it, in my opinion, as once the return portion has been used, the outward is immediately invalidated.

However if she was only going one-way, then it would be permissible to buy a 'wrong direction' return and only use the return portion (just as it is equally permissible to only use the outward portion of a ticket)