This is, IIMO, a most sensible and realistic approach to the question posed by the OP. I have yet to hear anyone argue that other forms of infrastructure (sewers and water treatment or electricity provison) ought to pay for themselves without the need to be subsidised by the taxpayer, but, for some reason, this understanding does not seem to apply to the railways.
I may be mistaken, but I was under the impression that in England, the ownership and provision of water / sewerage infrastructure is almost entirely in the hands of private companies, and funded by the consumers. (Acknowledging the debt write off at privatisation).