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Doesn't that depend on how you hypothecate tax revenues to the people paying them? How much of the tax take from 'poor folk' goes towards the sleeper relative to that paid by 'rich folk'?
The thing that is odd here is that you are actually subsidising comparatively rich people (no plebs will be able to afford the sleeper). These people can and should pay the full cost of the service. The sleeper service should at least break even. Why on earth should poor folk subsidise it?
That is quite a philosophical argument. By any measure, the average rail user (not just sleeper user) earns considerably than average wage and is much more likely to be ‘ABC1‘ than the population as a whole.
Therefore it is fair to ask the same question for the rail system as a whole.
(The answer, of course, is the societal benefit it brings).
The thing that is odd here is that you are actually subsidising comparatively rich people (no plebs will be able to afford the sleeper). These people can and should pay the full cost of the service. The sleeper service should at least break even. Why on earth should poor folk subsidise it?
You could make this cyclical argument about who is "deserving" of various public services until the end of time - eg why on earth should I subsidise the healthcare of people who abuse their bodies with alcohol and fags?
If you have tunnel vision on the individual costs and benefits then clearly you won't be interested in the wider societal benefits already alluded to.
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