In principle, yes. In practice, in built up areas, the zones are distinct and, as @JGurney notes, there is a de facto segregation which creates space for both to go about their business unaffected by the other. As a driver, I have to make some assumptions about my environment to make effective observation possible - one of those being that pedestrians won't walk right in front of me.In the UK there is no such definition of separate zones, or at least not in general.
Unless it is designated as a motorway or a special road, a pedestrian (or a cyclist or an equestrian) is as entitled to walk in the middle of the carriageway as a car driver is to drive in the middle of the carriageway. Motor vehicles are barred from the footway, but the same restriction doesn't apply in reverse.
It is something a lot of car drivers forget. Car drivers also routinely forget that pedestrians have right of way when the car driver is turning into a side road.
All of this is about the assessment of why an incident* has occurred. My objection was and is to the idea that such an assessment be guided by a presumption of fault. By being wholly neutral, the assessment can then look at the circumstances and assess them in terms of the law and the responsibilities of those involved.
* - I am deliberately using a neutral term, conveying no implications of innocence or guilt in the way that, say, "accident", does not.
That is where we differ; my view is that a balance needs to be struck between the two.20mph is perfectly adequate for preventing most serious injuries in places where people are likely to be crossing roads without signal protection. You should be adjusting your speed to reflect the conditions. If you've got a clear view then there's no reason not to drive at the speed limit. If your vision is obstructed by parked cars then you should be slowing down to a crawl.
I agree, that is a problem. But I reject the implication of that position, which is that the outcome predetermines guilt without supporting evidence. More generally, I also struggle with the idea that if something bad happens, it must be someone's fault, and that the only way of addressing that is for someone to be punished.Is that actually possible when the victim is dead or otherwise cannot speak in account of their own actions? In that situation the driver just claims "I didn't see him, he came out of nowhere..." and who's going to contradict them?
