A recent frustrating and exasperating experience of mine -- as per my thread title -- has prompted this post: am wondering whether anyone else has found themself in a similar predicament in similar circumstances; also, whether knowledgeable folk might be able to reveal to me why something seemingly nonsensical, in fact makes some sense.
I wished to purchase a item offered for sale by a vendor in a continental country (in Western Europe, in the EU, generally reckoned a thoroughly advanced and stable place). For reasons which it is unnecessary to embroil this post in, I was not in a position to make this payment using my credit card. I got in e-mail touch with the vendor: they were in principle willing to take my payment -- a modest number of euros -- by a transfer of money from my bank, to theirs. They furnished me with the, as it were, "streamlined, coded" (I don't know the banking technical terms) identifying information for their bank branch. I went to the local branch of my bank (Lloyds), and requested transferring of the sum concerned, from my account, to that of the vendor: the details as above, of which, I showed to them.
I was then told that the transaction which I wished to make, could not be made without my furnishing to my branch, the full postal addresses both of my "vendor" whom I wished to pay; and of their branch of their bank. A repeat visit to my branch -- armed now with my vendor's postal address -- to find out whether it could really be so vitally necessary to have the postal address of the bank branch "at the other end", and a conversation with a different employee, revealed that they were totally adamant that they had to have the postal address of the bank branch abroad.
To clarify, if needed: an example here, culled from fiction / fantasy. We'll say that I was trying to buy a book from a supplier in Ruritania. The bank's "coded" as I'll call it, details -- including the name of their client who I was trying to pay -- were approximately thus:
Rassendylls Bank H/L (Swift) code RASDL4Y
DCBA code RUR17RASD 5432112345
Customer: Bucherhandlung Anton Hoffnung Strelsau
Modelled on the "customer" 's (my vendor's) postal address, which as recounted above, I had: I take it that my bank required their bank branch's postal address -- which I figure would be on the lines of
Rassendylls Bank
Rupert-von-Hentzau-Strasse 16
1234 ZR Strelsau
RURITANIA
I e-mailed the vendor, trying to explain the situation, and requesting them to furnish me with the postal address of their bank branch. I did not hear from them again: inference drawn from this, is that they had concluded that I appeared to be funny in the head; or at least too much of a nuisance, with too little money to be potentially made from me, to be worth wasting any more time on. I ended up feeling that I had lost out in all ways: I couldn't get the desired book; and seemed to be regarded as a fool, by everyone concerned in the business. The two bank employees with whom I spoke on my respective two visits to the branch: were, I felt, borderline rude to me over this matter -- in my perception, strongly implying that one would have to be a total moron not to see it as clear-as-day obvious, that to make such a money transfer as I wished to do, the actioning bank requires, no-ifs-or-buts, the full postal address of both the payee, and of the payee's branch of the appropriate bank: any imagined alternative to this procedure, is both disallowed, and ridiculous even to suggest.
Would be interested to hear if anyone else here, has come up against this -- in my perception -- strange phenomenon. I wonder, do all or most of Britain's banks apply this rule, in such cases, with the same vigour and inflexibility -- or might it be a peculiarity of Lloyds? Is there in fact some strong practical / functional reason -- obscure to me in my ignorance -- for it to be so utterly imperative for the postal addresses of the payee, and their bank, to be there for the payer to furnish? Or (being cynical) are banks trying their hardest -- by making the thing as difficult and unpleasant as they can -- to kill off such transactions, for petty amounts on the part of ordinary individual account-holders -- "persons of no importance" -- because processing such transactions is, to the banks, unprofitable and time-wasting and an annoyance? -- let the proles use credit cards, or else let them refrain from trying to make payments to parties abroad?
As Private Eye has been wont to put it: enquiring minds would be glad to know...
I wished to purchase a item offered for sale by a vendor in a continental country (in Western Europe, in the EU, generally reckoned a thoroughly advanced and stable place). For reasons which it is unnecessary to embroil this post in, I was not in a position to make this payment using my credit card. I got in e-mail touch with the vendor: they were in principle willing to take my payment -- a modest number of euros -- by a transfer of money from my bank, to theirs. They furnished me with the, as it were, "streamlined, coded" (I don't know the banking technical terms) identifying information for their bank branch. I went to the local branch of my bank (Lloyds), and requested transferring of the sum concerned, from my account, to that of the vendor: the details as above, of which, I showed to them.
I was then told that the transaction which I wished to make, could not be made without my furnishing to my branch, the full postal addresses both of my "vendor" whom I wished to pay; and of their branch of their bank. A repeat visit to my branch -- armed now with my vendor's postal address -- to find out whether it could really be so vitally necessary to have the postal address of the bank branch "at the other end", and a conversation with a different employee, revealed that they were totally adamant that they had to have the postal address of the bank branch abroad.
To clarify, if needed: an example here, culled from fiction / fantasy. We'll say that I was trying to buy a book from a supplier in Ruritania. The bank's "coded" as I'll call it, details -- including the name of their client who I was trying to pay -- were approximately thus:
Rassendylls Bank H/L (Swift) code RASDL4Y
DCBA code RUR17RASD 5432112345
Customer: Bucherhandlung Anton Hoffnung Strelsau
Modelled on the "customer" 's (my vendor's) postal address, which as recounted above, I had: I take it that my bank required their bank branch's postal address -- which I figure would be on the lines of
Rassendylls Bank
Rupert-von-Hentzau-Strasse 16
1234 ZR Strelsau
RURITANIA
I e-mailed the vendor, trying to explain the situation, and requesting them to furnish me with the postal address of their bank branch. I did not hear from them again: inference drawn from this, is that they had concluded that I appeared to be funny in the head; or at least too much of a nuisance, with too little money to be potentially made from me, to be worth wasting any more time on. I ended up feeling that I had lost out in all ways: I couldn't get the desired book; and seemed to be regarded as a fool, by everyone concerned in the business. The two bank employees with whom I spoke on my respective two visits to the branch: were, I felt, borderline rude to me over this matter -- in my perception, strongly implying that one would have to be a total moron not to see it as clear-as-day obvious, that to make such a money transfer as I wished to do, the actioning bank requires, no-ifs-or-buts, the full postal address of both the payee, and of the payee's branch of the appropriate bank: any imagined alternative to this procedure, is both disallowed, and ridiculous even to suggest.
Would be interested to hear if anyone else here, has come up against this -- in my perception -- strange phenomenon. I wonder, do all or most of Britain's banks apply this rule, in such cases, with the same vigour and inflexibility -- or might it be a peculiarity of Lloyds? Is there in fact some strong practical / functional reason -- obscure to me in my ignorance -- for it to be so utterly imperative for the postal addresses of the payee, and their bank, to be there for the payer to furnish? Or (being cynical) are banks trying their hardest -- by making the thing as difficult and unpleasant as they can -- to kill off such transactions, for petty amounts on the part of ordinary individual account-holders -- "persons of no importance" -- because processing such transactions is, to the banks, unprofitable and time-wasting and an annoyance? -- let the proles use credit cards, or else let them refrain from trying to make payments to parties abroad?
As Private Eye has been wont to put it: enquiring minds would be glad to know...