EM2
Established Member
A number of times when reading threads in this section, we see that a customer has been issued with a PF, which, for any number of reasons, they were unable to pay at the time, e.g. http://www.railforums.co.uk/showthread.php?t=112721
It then appears that the company concerned will write to them advising of their intent to prosecute.
My question is, why are these not treated as a UPFN first, and then passed for prosecution if that is not paid?
It then appears that the company concerned will write to them advising of their intent to prosecute.
My question is, why are these not treated as a UPFN first, and then passed for prosecution if that is not paid?