Merle Haggard
Established Member
While it is true that mathematically 50% of people will always be under the median, that is not the definition of relative poverty. The definition is 60% of the median.
So take three people earning £50, £100, £150. Median is £100, 60% is £60, 1 person in poverty.
Change that to £70, £100, £130. Median is still £100, 60% is £60, nobody in poverty.
I knew that the poverty level was a proportion of the median (ie not the median itself) but didn't appreciate the effect that had.
However, your figures do reduce the high earner as well as increasing the low one, which is not dissimilar to the point I made. But your example would still work without reducing the highest figure though, because the median (ie the income of the person at the middle point) would remain as £100.
I was always fascinated by maths. and making an example by a few figures is a good way to illustrate the point. I should have tried it myself on this calculation...
Edited to correct Americanised auto correct
== Doublepost prevention - post automatically merged: ==
The threshold they use for relative poverty is 60% of the median figure.
As @greatkingrat also points out above, you can raise incomes for people at the bottom (and at the top) without raising the median.
If you have five people and they earn £30, £50, £100, £150, £200 then the median is £100 and relative poverty is £60. Two people are in relative poverty.
If you have five people and they now earn £61, £70, £100, £300, £400 then the median is still £100 (and relative poverty is still £60). But now nobody is in relative poverty, even though the income gap between the poorest and richest has doubled.
In my example the person in the middle who is still only earning £100 is going to be upset though. They're closer to the poor people and further away from the rich. Hence all the anger.
Thanks, see my post above - I tried to make this a quote but missed the boat.
As a pensioner who saved hard (and made sacrifices) so that I can have a reasonable retirement I feel sometimes I'm in situation in the last paragraph - though I'm certainly not angry.
What might upset me, though, is if the State Pension became means-related. My railway pension, for which I paid 7 1/2 percent of my salary (and I know it's more now) would be used in the means test resulting in a reduction my state pension. So the contributions would be wasted, in the sense of providing no benefit. Rather like the amount of NI (? 11 1/2 percent) similarly paid.
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