A standard face covering is designed to protect others, not the wearer, so does this really count as PPE?
PPE is not just about protecting the user; it can also be about protecting others. Appropriate PPE is ultimately a way of complying with the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act's duty of care to employees as well as persons other than employees.
If they want them to qualify as PPE then surely they need to be providing to the employee a mask that actually protects the employee, e.g. an "N95" type mask?
They can still be PPE even if they do not protect the wearer; however, I think they could be open to legal liability if they required the use of face coverings but did not provide or specify N95-style ones that protect the employee.
This would be because they would effectively be tactitly admitting that the risk posed is unacceptable without this item of PPE.
If anything, the risk posed by coronavirus is greater to teachers than to children (based on demographics) and thus it should really be the teachers that should have to wear masks, for their own benefit, if they are deemed at all necessary (I don't think I need to spell out my views on whether they are necessary).
Could it be argued that protecting people from getting viruses is not a "new hazard" and the same logic could be applied to a bad 'flu season, but I am not sure if that argument would hold water?
The societal reaction to coronavirus has been much stronger than that to the 'flu, even though they are similarly lethal. It is just that coronavirus is more infectious.
Risk assessments are, as many will be familiar with, dependent on both the potential injury/risk, as well as the likelihood of said risk occuring.
So whilst the potential injury resulting from coronavirus infection is similar to the 'flu, the greater risk of catching it (generally speaking - right now in most places it's probably the reverse!) means it presents a "higher" risk.
Of course, there are always ways and means of twisting these analyses to support your desired outcome. But ultimately I doubt the Courts would penalise an employer perceived to be overcautious.
They would have to provide the face coverings, presumably?
And could they ask for proof or evidence of a disability, medical reason or other protected characteristic?
If a face covering can be considered part of the dress code then I don't see that they necessarily have to provide it, any more than they have to provide clothes complying with their dress code.
If, on the other hand, face coverings are an item of PPE then the employer must provide it free of charge as usual.
You will struggle to make a case in Court if you refuse to share evidence with your employer of the protected characteristic against which you claim to have been discriminated. The same as you couldn't take extended sick leave without a doctor's note or employer's medical assessment.
The issue of lack of a requirement for proof is really more one for individual encounters with the police or other people enforcing face covering mandates - as it is impractical for them to require it in most cases. This is not so when you are working somewhere for a long period.
Does anyone know the legal position?
I concur with
@island - there is no indication of any legislation which puts the Government's "requirement" of a face covering in communal areas in secondary schools on a criminal law basis. That's just to say that it's not an offence to fail to wear a face covering.
That doesn't necessarily mean you couldn't face disciplinary action for failing or refusing to wear one without a valid exemption/reason. It's the same as how it's not an offence to speak poorly of a colleague or manager on social media, but it could quite legitimately mean disciplinary action.