TheGrandWazoo
Veteran Member
All developed countries have near universal car ownership. Most people who want a car can afford one. Certainly in Britain and other English speaking countries, car ownership means using the car for most if not all trips. However, in some other highly developed countries, there is high public transport modal share even in quite small cities. Therefore there must be many car owners in those places who use public transport for some trips and the car for some trips. This is because public transport has been made attractive enough that it is still considered worth using even if you have a car. That's why you can't look at international car ownership rates and assume that means that public transport is poorly used.
Indeed but it's much more nuanced than that (in terms of car ownership and distribution) and extends far beyond public transport provision. After all, the statement of "All developed countries have near universal car ownership" isn't really the case - in France it's 83% whilst here we are at 74% of households (not individuals) have access to a car. When looking at countries in Western Europe (which is where I think you're coming from), the whole fabric of urban planning (and the very structure of society) has been sculpted very differently in countries such as Sweden and Denmark.
Indeed, re "other English speaking countries" comment, there are even great disparities within Europe. Look at the EU member states in CEE and you'll see that places like Slovenia are seeing public transport use decline markedly as car ownership swells but then again, their approach to society and social planning is different from Western Europe or the UK.